ABOG OB/GYN Qualifying Exam

Practice session

A 32-year-old at 6 weeks has a positive urine pregnancy test, vaginal spotting, and RLQ pain. Transvaginal ultrasound shows no intrauterine pregnancy; serum hCG is 3,500 mIU/mL. A small adnexal mass is seen. She is hemodynamically stable. The lesion measures 2.5 cm with no cardiac activity. What is the most appropriate management?

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