Arab Board Ob/Gyn Part 1

Practice session

A 27-year-old woman at 8 weeks of amenorrhoea presents with left iliac fossa pain and a positive pregnancy test. Transvaginal ultrasound shows an empty uterus and a 2 cm left adnexal mass with no fetal cardiac activity; serum beta-hCG is 1500 IU/L and she is haemodynamically stable. Which is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

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