Arab Board Ob/Gyn Part 1
Arab Board Obstetrics and Gynecology Part 1 Written Exam (ABHS)
Menstrual DisordersEnglish
Exam overviewPractice session
A 26-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea, galactorrhoea and a markedly raised serum prolactin. MRI shows a pituitary microadenoma. What is the first-line treatment?
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