Arab Board Orthopedic Surgery Clinical

Practice session

A 48-year-old female presents with progressive medial ankle pain and flattening of her medial longitudinal arch over 1 year. On standing posterior examination, she exhibits marked hindfoot valgus and a 'too-many-toes' sign on the affected side. She is completely unable to perform a single-leg heel rise. Passive manipulation reveals that the subtalar joint remains flexible and fully correctable to neutral (Stage II Posterior Tibial Tendon Dysfunction). What is the standard reconstructive surgical procedure?

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