ABIM Infectious Disease

Practice session

A 42-year-old previously healthy woman presents as an outpatient with cough, fever, and a right lower lobe infiltrate on chest x-ray. She has no comorbidities, no recent antibiotic exposure, and no risk factors for drug-resistant pathogens. Per the ATS/IDSA 2019 community-acquired pneumonia guideline, which of the following is the preferred outpatient regimen?

Loading your practice session…