ABPath Neuropathology

Practice session

A 42-year-old woman presents with a new-onset seizure. MRI shows a non-enhancing, T2-hyperintense, infiltrative mass in the right frontal lobe. Biopsy shows a moderately cellular astrocytic neoplasm with atypia but no microvascular proliferation or necrosis. IHC shows IDH1 R132H positive and ATRX loss. 1p/19q is retained. Which diagnosis per WHO CNS 2021 is most appropriate?

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